I understand that in Catholic teaching one can't work their way to salvation, however on Greg Koukl's radio show podcast, "Stand to Reason," on 10/15/2012 at 24:40, he and a caller talk about how "modus tollens" proves that the Catholic view of justification is "justification by works." They assert the following based on 1 Corinthians 9:27:
source
If I do not work, I will be disqualified.
I don't work, therefore I'm disqualified.
My question is, are they using "modus tollens" appropriately and if they are using it correctly, how is it not justification by works? I know from reading that initial justification can't be had by works. However, after initial justification we have to do works, but if we are still being justified then how isn't it "Justification by works"? I hope this makes sense and doesn't take up too much of your time.Good question, and graciously put.
So, I replied:
There is nothing in the Catholic position that denies the force of a valid inference (modus tollens). Moreover, Koukl's argument is not modus tollens. It is modus ponens. And the conclusion does not follow from the premise, because "I will be" is future tense and "I am" is present tense (ht: Bryan Cross). Therefore, what is wrong is his formula, because it is an incomplete formula.
"If I do not work, I will be disqualified.
I don't work, therefore I'm disqualified."
This construal would be to make the Catholic position Palagian. Which would seem to construe all theological positions that required works to be Palagian. However, that is not true. What is missing is the kind of works. Without grace, no work can be efficacious and no failure to work would disqualify you. However, when one has grace in his soul (i.e., participation in the divine life of God through His Son, Jesus Christ by the Holy Spirit), one must respond to that grace. In the words of Sacred Scripture, you show me your faith, I will show you my works.
So let's consider a new argument:
If I do not work, I resist grace.
If I resist grace, therefore I'm disqualified.
What would have to be shown is that there is no special, qualitative, difference between works of the flesh (i.e., simple human effort) and works wrought by the Spirit. Of course, there are.
If X, then Y. Y, therefore, X. This is true. What Greg is missing is the syllogism that arrives at the premise. In this case, if one has works he does not ipso facto have grace. Therefore, the thrust of his argument fails because he fails to make a crucial distinction between different kinds of works.Consider the inverse of Mr. Koukl's argument:
If I do work, I will be qualified.
I don't work, therefore I'm disqualified.
This formulation shows how sophistic the original construction was. If "works" are not qualified, then the premise above must be true, but it is not true. Let me explain further:
If not-A, then not-B.
Not-A, therefore, not-B.
However, that is not the same thing as saying:
If A, then B.
Just because "not-A, then not-B" tells me nothing about A. Which demonstrates why Koukl's original construction is simply incomplete. And that, my friends, is "standing on reason".
Note: A modus tollens would look like this:
I do not resist grace, I work.
I do not work, therefore I resist grace.
































